Ok, sorry, when I first read your post, I mistook it for a challenge, and I didn't know how to respond. But yeah, if you would help me sharpen my research that would be awesome.
A kind of peer-review.
@BenjaminHoogterp Are you reading me? I forgot to tag the last two posts for you.
You mention his audience. I was coming from the angle independent of his then-audience, the angle that everyone in the world seems to believe, that Jesus was a champion of the needy.
I don't get the sense from Jesus' words that He was advocating absolute poverty--Compare Mark 10:30.. That is the premise I would question. There is a sense of leaving everything to follow, but in the spirit of Matthew 13:44, it is always "gain".
Paul was admonished by the apostles to help the poor, the thing he was eager to do.. And, Jesus carried a money bag... and they collected the extra of the feeding to give to the poor..
Ok, now you're talking about why Jesus was here. My question isn't about that at all.
And I worry now that we're talking about value judgments. I'm just studying and seeing where it takes me. I'm not making any value judgments. I'm just surprised that everyone thinks Jesus is so deeply concerned about the poor, because the Gospels don't say that.
My thought is that "why Jesus was here" is "what Jesus was talking about", and, hence, the "why" is source for the "what". His primary teaching concerned his primary mission, which was the Kingdom, and the poor are great candidates for the Kingdom.
If we understand that Jesus is "deeply concerned" about all men, it would make sense that his parables relating to daily life would be primarily about the primary class of individuals. Neither the absolute destitute poor, nor the absolute filthy rich.
Actually, I don't know why I'm arguing this with you. I'm doing a research project. I thought you might help me to learn something. Now we're just arguing values.
@Susan @JackDouglas Colloquially (i.e., "naturally") in speech, I would just say "Who did Pat pay for the tickets?" Even the Oxford advice recognizes that "who" in all contexts is increasingly acceptable. But I'd go with "Whom did Boaz pay when purchasing Naomi's land?" and leave out any "to". Not that we really care. :D
@Davïd Thanks. Since the OP included "whom" and it's basically correct, that wasn't even in question for me. It's the weirdness of figuring out whether it's acceptable to use "to whom" as Jack had it that confused me.
(It looks like the OP also had "to whom" but was speaking some language other than English and placing the subject after the verb. I guess? Thanks for figuring that one out, @JackDouglas!)
@Susan Indeed, thus my suggestion. Flipping it around, one sees the "to" isn't needed at all: "Boaz paid whom for Naomi's land?" is grammatical ... isn't it? (More coffee, please...)
@Davïd Absolutely. I have no doubt that it's correct without the "to." I just got hung up on why it's not correct (or doesn't seem to be to me anyway) with it. It seems to be because there's no stated direct object, but that appears to be backward from what normally happens with the IO when adding/subtracting the DO in English. Or my head's just going in circles today.
@majnemɪzdæn That's quite an interesting question (isn't it always "third", even if you start from 0?). And an interesting issue - was the previous version "too short" somehow?